Free PDF Quiz 2025 Oracle Authoritative 1Z0-1111-25 New Study Plan

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Our Oracle 1Z0-1111-25 practice exam simulator mirrors the 1Z0-1111-25 exam experience, so you know what to anticipate on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2025 Observability Professional (1Z0-1111-25) certification exam day. Our Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2025 Observability Professional practice test ITexamReview features various question styles and levels, so you can customize your Oracle 1Z0-1111-25 Exam Questions preparation to meet your needs.

Oracle 1Z0-1111-25 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	Monitor Cloud Environments with Metrics and Alarms: This section tests Oracle Cloud Operators' knowledge of configuring OCI Monitoring Service. It includes enabling metrics for resource monitoring, setting up alarms based on best practices, and responding to real-time changes in cloud environments to ensure system reliability.
Topic 2	Summarize OCI Observability and Management Services: This section evaluates the expertise of DevOps Engineers and IT Operations Managers in utilizing Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Observability and Management services. It covers tools for monitoring, auditing, and managing cloud resources, emphasizing automation and machine learning-driven insights to optimize IT operations.
Topic 3	Monitor Distributed Components of an Application Stack: This section measures the skills of Stack Monitoring Specialists and Cloud Administrators in using OCI Stack Monitoring. It covers discovering resources within application stacks, monitoring metrics across distributed components, and ensuring optimal performance through effective resource management.
Topic 4	Distinguish the Key Concepts of Logging Analytics: This section evaluates the expertise of Data Analysts and Troubleshooting Specialists in using OCI Logging Analytics. It covers log ingestion methods, searching and filtering logs, performing advanced analytics, and leveraging machine learning-powered insights for proactive issue resolution.
Topic 5	Define the Pillars of Observability: This section of the exam measures the skills of Cloud Architects and Site Reliability Engineers (SREs) in understanding the three pillars of observability: logs, metrics, and traces. It explains how these components provide insights into system health and performance, enabling effective monitoring and troubleshooting in distributed cloud environments.

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Quiz Oracle - 1Z0-1111-25 - Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2025 Observability Professional Pass-Sure New Study Plan

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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2025 Observability Professional Sample Questions (Q47-Q52):

NEW QUESTION # 47
Which two are use cases of Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Events Service? (Choose two.)

A. Perform configuration management for deploying, configuring, and managing servers
B. Process files when they are uploaded in an Object Storage bucket
C. Perform cleanup tasks when an OCI resource is terminated
D. Migrate Events generated by OCI resources from a Source to Target services

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The OCI Events Service enables event-driven automation by reacting to changes in OCI resources. Two valid use cases are:
Process files when they are uploaded in an Object Storage bucket (A): You can create an event rule to trigger an action (e.g., invoking an Oracle Function) when an object is created (com.oraclecloud.objectstorage.createobject). The function could process the file (e.g., image resizing).
Perform cleanup tasks when an OCI resource is terminated (B): An event rule can detect resource termination (e.g., com.oraclecloud.computeapi.terminateinstance.end) and trigger a function to clean up associated resources (e.g., delete volumes).
Why not C or D?
Migrate Events (C): Events Service doesn't "migrate" events; it triggers actions. Migration is more aligned with Service Connector Hub.
Configuration management (D): This is handled by services like Resource Manager or Ansible, not Events Service.
These use cases showcase the service's ability to automate workflows based on resource state changes.

NEW QUESTION # 48
Which statement is valid for auto-upgrade of Management Agent?

A. Auto-upgrade is an opt-in/opt-out feature at the tenancy level
B. Auto-upgrade is always enabled by default (no action is needed)
C. Auto-upgrade option is not available for Management Agent
D. Users cannot disable "auto-upgrade"

Answer: D

Explanation:
The auto-upgrade feature for Management Agents ensures they stay current:
Users cannot disable "auto-upgrade" (B): Auto-upgrade is mandatory and enabled by default, automatically updating agents to the latest version for security and functionality. Users lack an opt-out mechanism.
Why not A, C, or D?
A: Incorrect; it's not configurable at the tenancy level.
C: True that it's enabled by default, but B is more precise about the lack of disable option.
D: False; auto-upgrade exists.
This ensures consistent agent reliability.

NEW QUESTION # 49
Why do dedicated Vantage Points matter? Select two reasons that apply. (Choose two.)

A. Applications on-premise or on secured network cannot be tested from a public Vantage Point
B. Applications on-premise or secured network can be tested from a public Vantage Point
C. Test internal customer applications
D. Test Deployment Manager and Scheduler

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
In OCI APM's Synthetic Monitoring, Vantage Points are locations from which synthetic tests (e.g., HTTP requests) are run. Dedicated Vantage Points are private, user-managed instances, distinct from public ones hosted by Oracle:
Applications on-premise or on secured network cannot be tested from a public Vantage Point (B): Public Vantage Points, located in Oracle-managed regions, lack access to private networks (e.g., on-premise servers or firewalled applications). Dedicated Vantage Points, deployed within a user's network, overcome this limitation.
Test internal customer applications (C): Dedicated Vantage Points enable testing of internal applications (e.g., intranet sites) not exposed to the public internet, ensuring performance monitoring from within the secured environment.
Why not A or D?
Test from public Vantage Point (A): Contradicts B; public Vantage Points can't access private networks.
Test Deployment Manager and Scheduler (D): These are unrelated OCI components, not Synthetic Monitoring targets.
Dedicated Vantage Points extend monitoring to restricted environments.

NEW QUESTION # 50
Which is the recommended method to continuously monitor and ingest logs from Object Storage buckets?

A. ObjectCollection Rule
B. Object Store
C. Object Store Bucket
D. Object Storage

Answer: A

Explanation:
For continuous log ingestion from Object Storage:
ObjectCollection Rule (A): A Logging Analytics feature that monitors Object Storage buckets and ingests logs based on defined patterns (e.g., bucket name, object prefix). It's designed for this purpose.
Why not B, C, or D?
Object Store (B), Object Storage (C), Object Store Bucket (D): These refer to the storage service or its components, not a method for log ingestion.
ObjectCollection Rule ensures automated, ongoing log collection.

NEW QUESTION # 51
Which response contains rich information to process for analytics?

A. Entity types
B. Database Audit Logs
C. Logging Analytic Entities
D. Log Sources

Answer: B

Explanation:
For analytics, the data source must provide detailed, actionable information.
Database Audit Logs (C): These logs contain rich data like user actions, SQL queries, timestamps, and security events, making them ideal for performance, security, and compliance analysis in Logging Analytics.
Why not A, B, or D?
Entity types (A): These are metadata definitions, not data for analytics.
Log Sources (B): These are configurations for log parsing, not the logs themselves.
Logging Analytic Entities (D): Entities are resource representations, not the data content.
Database Audit Logs offer the depth needed for meaningful insights.

NEW QUESTION # 52
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FREE PDF QUIZ 2025 ORACLE AUTHORITATIVE 1Z0-1111-25 NEW STUDY PLAN

Free PDF Quiz 2025 Oracle Authoritative 1Z0-1111-25 New Study Plan